Interactive Transcript
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Hello, and welcome to Noon Conference hosted by Modality.
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Noon Conference connects the global radiology community through free live
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educational webinars that are accessible for all and is an opportunity to learn
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alongside top radiologists from around the world.
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Today, we are honored to welcome Dr.
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Alejandra Bedoya for a lecture entitled "Normal and Abnormal MRI
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Appearance of the Pediatric Bone Marrow." Dr.
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Bedoya completed her radiology residency and MSK subspecialty training
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at the University of Pennsylvania.
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She did her pediatric radiology and fetal subspecialty training
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at Boston Children's Hospital, Harvard Medical School, where she stayed as faculty
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for four years. Currently, she is a pediatric radiologist at SickKids
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University of Toronto. At the end of the lecture, please join her in a
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Q&A session where she will address questions you may have on today's topic.
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Please remember to use that Q&A feature to submit your questions so we can get to
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as many as we can before our time is up.
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With that, we're ready to begin today's lecture. Dr.
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Bedoya, please take it from here.
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Thank you so much, Ashley, and thank you so much for the invitation.
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It's a great pleasure to be here today talking about normal and
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abnormal bone marrow assessment in children.
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I don't have anything to disclose.
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So we're going to start with a case.
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This was a case that I had during fellowship, and I think it describes
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why this topic is so important. So we have a
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four-year-old male that was transferred from another country with a
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diagnosis of severe juvenile idiopathic arthritis,
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anemia, and subdural hematomas. So the history is kind of
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bizarre.
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We were consulted by rheumatology to review the prior
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studies and the history that we got. This was an international transfer.
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The history that we got is that he had one year of fever, generalized
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pain. He had a hip MRI. After that hip MRI, he was
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started on prednisone and methotrexate. He developed papilledema.
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He got a CT scan, and six months later, he had a forehead nodule,
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and neurosurgery was consulted. So the history is atypical.
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So these were the first radiographs from 2019, and
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they were relatively normal, no focal abnormality seen.
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And this was the concurrent MRI that was performed at that time.
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So as I said, this was one year before he presented to us.
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So we have a coronal T1, we have a coronal T2 FAT sat in two
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different sections. And I want you to look at the images and
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think about what is the principal diagnosis in this
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MRI. So is it bilateral joint effusion?
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Is it septic arthritis of the right hip, left-sided
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peritendinar myositis, or bone marrow infiltration?
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So I want you all at the end of this presentation to be confident
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100% that this is bone marrow infiltration, diffuse bone
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marrow infiltration. So let's talk a little bit about
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what happened to this patient, unfortunate case.
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So he had an ultrasound of the bilateral
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knees, and unfortunately, this was also described as knee effusion.
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As I said, we don't know. As this is an international patient,
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unfortunately, based on the first MRI, he was started on steroids and
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prednisone.
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This was the ultrasound of the knees, and something was measured here,
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and there was reported bilateral knee effusion.
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But we need to remember that when we do ultrasounds in pediatric, it's
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different than adults. Pediatric patients have a lot
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of epiphyseal cartilage, which is like this is an MRI of
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a similar age patient, and you can see that the epiphyseal
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cartilage is relatively big. And on ultrasound, the epiphyseal
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cartilage looks completely anechoic.
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How can we differentiate it from joint effusion?
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The good thing is that ultrasound is a dynamic study, so we can do compression to
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see if the fluid moves. We can actually move the joint or the knee to
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see if this is actually fluid or if it's just an anechoic epiphyseal
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cartilage. But in this case, you can see the normal femoral
4:07
epiphysis. So this is like a longitudinal view of the knee.
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You can see the tibial epiphyseal cartilage, the physis, the
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epiphysis, and the metaphysis in this area.
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So unfortunately, in this case, the important findings were
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missed. This is non-effusion.
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And unfortunately, as I said, this patient was started on prednisone.
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So we have CTs from September 2019 and June 2020.
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And on the subsequent, on the last CT
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from 2020, unfortunately, this was reported as subdural
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hematomas. But the truth is that the most important finding was missed,
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and it was the model appearance of the bones.
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It looks really regular. It looks really atypical.
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And we can see these forehead nodules. So these are extracts.
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So these are external. So this could not be
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subdural hematomas. These are actually extruose
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of tissue masses. So when he presented to us on admission, we can see
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that the radiographs now are abnormal.
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There is a diffuse,
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patchy marrow infiltration process.
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We can actually see on the CT that there is mass
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in the left pelvic, the retroperitoneal region at the Zuckerman
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organ with metastatic lesions in the bilateral
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supraclavicular nodes. And unfortunately, the whole bone
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appearance is abnormal, and he developed AVMs of the
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proximal
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humeral heads as well as the femoral heads.
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It's unclear if this is secondary to the primary disease or the high
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doses of steroids. So this case is
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actually a case of neuroblastoma.
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So he underwent an MIBG in our institution with
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the highest score we have seen, 29 over 30.
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So this MIBG scan looks like a bone scan, but
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all these are just metastatic osseous disease.
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So the reason why I'm showing this case is because I think we can make the
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diagnosis with the first MRI, and throughout this
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talk, I'm going to give you tips on how to make the diagnosis confidently.
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So neuroblastoma, in this case, is responsible for 15% of
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cancer-related children deaths.
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So he was a four-year-old. So every time we see a bone marrow infiltration
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process, we have to think about lymphoproliferative disorders such as
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leukemia or lymphoma, and also neuroblastoma, which can have
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diffuse bone marrow infiltration, and it's a pretty common
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finding in children of diffuse metastatic
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disease. So let's just start with the basics.
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What are the different types of bone marrow, and why do we care
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about this? We care about this because children, you're going to
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see the normal process of conversion from red marrow to
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yellow marrow throughout the skeleton.
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And we need to remember that histologically, the red marrow is
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going to be the hypercellular, the one that is in charge of
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hematopoiesis. But we need to see, and I'm
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highlighting this with a star, is that it has 40% fat.
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So this is extremely important because the
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only role of MRI is differentiating between
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fat and water. So if we know that red marrow has
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40% fat, we will be able to differentiate normal
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red marrow from muscle or from a bone marrow infiltrative
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process that is going to get rid of that fat.
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Of course, the yellow marrow or the fatty marrow is going to have 80% fat
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and is going to have a more nutritional support,
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a goal in the bone marrow with limited
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vascularity. So we need to remember there are two types of red
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marrow. And something important that we need to remember is that there
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is a normal bone marrow
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conversion, which is the transformation from
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red marrow to yellow marrow. So this bone marrow
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conversion happens in a predicted way,
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and you have to know it because an abnormality of this normal
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process is pathologic. So the first important
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rule is that the red marrow converts from
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distal to proximal, and that's why in the axial
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skeleton, for example, in the spine, you can still see red
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marrow, particularly in women, because there is a higher need of
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hematopoiesis. And it's a normal finding
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to see a little bit of red marrow in the proximal femurs or in the pelvis or in the
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spine. So this is from distal to proximal.
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But also there is a predictable bone marrow conversion
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within the long bone. So within the long bone, and I
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don't know if you can see my video, but I always say that the bone marrow
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conversion is like epiphysis, diaphysis, metaphysis.
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Epiphysis, diaphysis, metaphysis.
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So first it's going to be the proximal
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epiphysis, then the distal epiphysis, then
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the diaphysis, and finally the metaphysis with a little bit of
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residual red marrow in the proximal metaphysis.
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So why do we care about this? Because in a child,
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you're going to have, for example, first the development of your
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distal aspects. So for example, a neonate or a newborn is going
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to have your distal secondary ossification center in the femur, but not the
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femoral head. So the first
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rule is predicted
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conversion, distal to proximal. The second rule is epiphysis,
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diaphysis, metaphysis. And the third rule that is really important is that
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at the beginning of the appearance of the secondary
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ossification center in radiographs, you're going to have red marrow.
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But after six months of the radiographic appearance, that
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red marrow is going to turn into yellow marrow.
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So why do I say this? It's because each bone is going to
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have a different time where the secondary ossification
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center is going to appear.
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So for example, in the femoral head, as we know, we do
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ultrasound assessment of the hips in patients younger than six months.
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And usually after six months, we do hip
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assessment for hip dysplasia with radiographs because we
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have a secondary ossification center in the femoral head.
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So at the beginning, it's going to be red marrow, and then six months
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later, it should be
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yellow marrow. So the best sequence
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to evaluate the marrow
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is a T1 without a fat sat. So the
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routine T1. So if you are doing a pediatric
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MSK protocol, it should always have a T1 sequence.
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So why is the T1 so important? The T1 is important
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because the normal red marrow, as you can see here, for example, in the
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proximal femur in a five-year-old, is going to have higher
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signal intensity than the adjacent muscle.
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And this is the fifth rule. Because you're going to have
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40% fat. So that's how you know you have a normal red
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marrow. So one is distribution, and the other one is signal intensity.
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So here we can see with different age ranges how the
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normal bone marrow conversion happens.
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So it first happens in the knees compared to the hips.
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And you can see in a one-week-old how we pediatric
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radiologists, we struggle to evaluate the marrow in
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neonates just because when they are born, they don't follow the
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rules, and they have so much red marrow, and they need
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so much hematopoiesis that even your normal red marrow is going to be
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darker or in lower signal intensity than the adjacent muscle.
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And that's why it's so hard to identify osteomyelitis in these babies.
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But after that, it's really easy to differentiate what is red
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marrow and what is yellow marrow. So you can see that at the beginning, you don't
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have a secondary ossification center, but then at one year of age, you
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should have your normal femoral head with
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yellow marrow.
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This is an MRI of a fetus, like a T1 5, and you can see
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how much
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red marrow is in that diaphysis. This is the distal
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femoral epiphysis that is not ossified.
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Actually, it's like one little secondary ossification center is forming,
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and your femoral head is not ossified.
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But all this is just really dense
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hematopoietic red marrow. So the signal intensity in the
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bone marrow is important, as I just described.
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And for me, the T1 sequence is the most important.
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So the T2 sequence is going to help you to--
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Your eyes are going to go to the abnormality, like high signal on
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T2, but the T1 is a sequence that is going to
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tell you if it's aggressive, non-aggressive,
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or normal red marrow. So remember, T1 red
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marrow, when we compare to the muscle, it should be equal or higher
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signal, just because it has 40% fat.
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The T2 is going to be bright and the red marrow usually enhances.
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The yellow marrow, of course, is going to have high signal on T1, low signal on
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T2, just because it has a higher fat component.
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But as you can see, the red marrow compared to pathologic
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infiltration and edema, the T1 is going to give you the
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clue if it's normal or abnormal, because edema and pathologic
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infiltration is going to have lower T1
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signal when compared to the adjacent muscle.
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So a normal muscle should have 0% fat, so you
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should compare with a normal muscle.
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And if you don't have, for example, in a spinal MRI where you don't have your
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muscle to be able to use as a comparison tool, you're going to
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use the intervertebral disc as your
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factor to decide if it's higher signal or lower signal, but it should
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be higher signal.
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So chemical shift imaging is another tool that we can use to
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evaluate marrow signal,
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and fat presence within the red marrow.
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So normal red marrow and yellow marrow should have drop of
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signal in the out-of-phase, just because of the microscopic
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fat. But the truth is that in tiny babies, this is not going to be
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useful, and I didn't use it in
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neonates or younger kids because there is so much red marrow that
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it's just not useful. So this is, for example, a neonate, where the
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in-phase signal actually looks that it has lower signal
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intensity than the out-of-phase. That doesn't mean that is abnormal.
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We just don't use this in pediatrics as much.
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So if we go back to the case one, the case that started all this
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conversation, and if we apply all the rules, we
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can see how abnormal this first
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image is. And you only need the T1 to make your diagnosis in this case.
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So, for example, as we said, the femoral head should
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appear at six months of age. So that means that at one
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year of age, you should have yellow marrow.
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But we can see in this T1 that at four years of age,
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this is not a normal fatty marrow
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within the humeral head. So there is an abnormal
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distribution. Number two, it's so dark.
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In some areas, it's lower signal intensity than the adjacent muscle,
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so we have an abnormality in the distribution and an abnormality in the
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signal. And the problem is that in the T2, the bone
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marrow infiltration is so diffuse that sometimes it's
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easy to miss the finding. Or sometimes it's easy for
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your eyes to go to more focal abnormalities.
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So, for example, here in the ischium,
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you can see that there is higher signal.
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There may be some periarticular muscle
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edema, but your eyes, that's not the finding.
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And sometimes when there is so much bone marrow infiltration, you see
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areas of necrosis or AVM, but that's not the
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diagnosis. The diagnosis is not AVM.
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The diagnosis is just diffuse bone marrow infiltration.
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So the T2 sometimes can be a little misleading.
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So go to your T1, apply those rules, and you won't
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miss any bone marrow infiltration process.
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So let's look at this case. So this is 17-year-old with shoulder
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instability. So if we apply the rules, there
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is a little bit of abnormal signal in the
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subchondral region that is a little bit bright on the
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PD, a little bit low signal on the T1.
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But if you see it mirrors the
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normal red marrow in the metaphysis, is higher signal intensity
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than the adjacent muscle, but it has a relatively abnormal
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distribution. It's in the epiphysis.
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You shouldn't have, at this age,
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anything like red marrow that looks in the epiphysis.
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So the question is, is it osteomyelitis? Is it bone marrow infiltration?
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Is it a normal variant or subchondral edema secondary to cartilage loss?
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And with all the rules, there are always exceptions.
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So this is actually a normal variant that we all need to identify, so
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we don't call it abnormal. So it's really important when we evaluate red marrow in
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children,
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how there are some normal variants, and some of
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them can be, for example, flame shape.
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You can see these
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metaphyseal flame-shaped red marrow signal
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abnormalities. But if you follow the rules, it is
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higher signal than the adjacent muscle.
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It has normal distribution, which is in the metaphysis.
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The epiphysis look normal. It's ill-defined.
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So that's a normal red marrow.
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You can also have marrow appearance, particularly in the feet
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and the ankles. We don't know if this is just
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clusters of red
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marrow, particularly after you have a fracture, you are
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immobilized, you cannot weight-bear, or if it's just
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microfractures within
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the bones. It's unclear. We believe that it's just a normal
18:29
variant, and you will see in our report that we sometimes didn't even mention it
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because it's so normal in kids.
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This is an example in the ankle where you can see all this mottle
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appearance of patchy red marrow, and this is completely normal.
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Another normal variant is the epiphyseal halo, and this is the
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example I gave in case two. We need to remember that it exists, so we don't
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call it abnormal. So, the rules of this one is that it's
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parallel to the
18:59
articular surface. We usually see it in the hip or the
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humerus or the shoulder. And if you see, it follows the rules that
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is higher signal than the muscle, is ill-defined, and it has to
19:12
be parallel to the subchondral bone.
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Another variant is the fascial anchoring,
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which is these little lines that we see that is not true bone
19:25
marrow edema. We don't know if it is just red marrow or if
19:29
it's just fibrous anchoring of the fascia.
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But this is not a FOPE, which is the focal
19:36
edema, perifascial edema. This is just a normal anchoring of the
19:40
fascia.
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So let's go to the case three. So this is a 16-year-old with
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contralateral right femoral osteosarcoma on
19:49
chemotherapy. So all these two are T1 weighted images.
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This was in 2018, and this one was in 2019.
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And you can see that there has been a change in the bone marrow appearance.
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So on 2018, at time of diagnosis, we can see that there is
20:05
normal red marrow in the proximal femoral metaphysis, which is normal
20:09
in appearance. But in 2019, it started to be too dark,
20:13
too lower signal compared than the muscle, and there is this
20:16
abnormality in the epiphysis and the diaphysis.
20:19
This is abnormal. So the question is, what can this be?
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Is this osteomyelitis? Is this metastasis?
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We know that the patient has osteosarcoma.
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Is this bone marrow reconversion or pseudostoma or stress
20:33
changes?
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So in this case, this is bone marrow reconversion.
20:40
And we need to be familiar of what is bone marrow reconversion.
20:43
So bone marrow reconversion is the opposite of what we discussed. Right?
20:47
The good news is that it happens in a reversible,
20:50
predictable pattern. So it's the completely the
20:54
opposite of the conversion. So that means that if your body
20:58
needs more hematopoiesis, so for example, you have
21:02
anemia or you are on
21:05
granulocyte stimulator factors,
21:08
as part of your treatment,
21:12
the bone marrow is going to convert to red marrow.
21:16
So that's what we call a reconversion, and it's going to happen in a
21:20
reverse, predictable process. So that means that first it's going to be your
21:23
metaphysis, then it's going to be your diaphysis, and finally your
21:27
epiphysis with the axial skeleton happening first, and it's going to be
21:31
from
21:33
proximal to distal. So it's a reconversion.
21:36
So how do we know if it's normal or abnormal?
21:39
So the clinical history is going to be really important.
21:42
Don't use this diagnosis if it's a
21:45
completely healthy patient with pain.
21:48
There has to be a reason. You have to have severe anemia.
21:51
You have to be on
21:53
a granulocyte stimulator factor treatment to be able to call
21:57
it. But you can see in this example how in 2018 it was
22:01
normal. 2019, he had post-treatment response from bone marrow
22:05
reconversion. He was on granulocyte stimulator factor.
22:08
And then in 2020,
22:10
as the treatment stops, it goes back to normal bone
22:14
marrow. So this is a normal process that you don't have to
22:17
confuse with metastasis.
22:21
So as we have discussed throughout this talk, the bone marrow
22:24
abnormalities can be either in distribution, so that's why
22:28
you need to know normal distribution, or signal abnormalities.
22:31
So the T1 is too dark or the T2 is too bright.
22:36
We can also divide the bone marrow abnormalities in focal,
22:40
multifocal, diffuse, or treatment effects.
22:44
We don't have time to go through all of them individually, but my
22:47
goal is to give you some
22:51
tips to be able to decide if you should
22:55
raise concerns or if you should actually be
22:59
more
23:02
conservative in your recommendations.
23:04
So focal lesions, we have, of course, infection.
23:08
Focal lesions can be infections, tumors, any type of
23:12
primary bone tumor. Multifocal, we always think
23:15
about metastasis,
23:18
Langerhans histiocytosis, CRMO, and
23:22
in children, particularly in small children, we think about infection, which in
23:26
adults we don't think about infection just because in children,
23:30
the osteomyelitis is going to be,
23:34
it has a hematopoiesis,
23:36
it's spread by bacteremia
23:40
instead of by direct contact, which in adults is like you
23:44
have a diabetic foot, you have an ulcer, and usually it develops
23:47
osteomyelitis. But in children, they usually have just
23:51
bacteremia, so it can seed in multiple bones.
23:55
We have a diffuse bone marrow infiltration, so when we think about
23:59
storage disease, leukemia, anorexia,
24:03
anemia, but we have to think, as I said, about
24:06
neuroblastoma and sometimes rhabdo in babies.
24:10
They kind of spread diffusely within the bone marrow.
24:14
And of course, we need to talk about treatment effect, which is what we just talked
24:17
about, bone marrow reconversion.
24:19
So let's talk a little bit about focal bone marrow
24:22
lesions. And my rule for focal bone
24:26
marrow lesions in the differentiation between is this
24:30
benign or malignant, should I recommend a biopsy or this is a
24:34
non-aggressive pathology,
24:38
I use the T1. So as you will hear me throughout this talk, for me, the
24:42
most important sequence is the T1 for bone marrow.
24:46
Why? Because Benign lesions or inflammatory
24:49
lesions are going to have ill-defined margins on
24:53
T1. Because the bone marrow infiltration is
24:57
going to be more diffuse. It's going to, the
25:00
pus or the edema is going to start going
25:04
through the medullary canal, but it's not going to be replacing the
25:08
fat, if that makes sense, as abrupt.
25:11
So in this case, so this is a 12-year-old with osteomyelitis.
25:15
We can see here on the T1 how it's really
25:18
difficult to create a true margin
25:21
of the abnormality on T1. So if you cannot follow
25:26
the abnormality on T1 with a pencil,
25:29
it's most likely non-aggressive. So it's most likely a benign lesion.
25:33
And if you really think about it, it's different to radiographs.
25:37
So in radiographs, if you can define your
25:40
margins that are sclerotic and you know exactly where they are, you think that it
25:45
makes you feel more comfortable. But in MRI, it's difficult, and it's the T1.
25:49
If you cannot follow it, it's a good
25:52
sign. So inflammatory lesions, we have, of course,
25:56
chondroblastomas in the epiphysis, which you are going to have a lesion with a lot
26:00
of inflammation. We have LCH, osteochondroma,
26:04
osteomyelitis, and as I said, the bone marrow edema, you're going to see it
26:07
better on the T2,
26:09
but the T1 is going to tell you how to characterize it.
26:13
So in this case, we can see that there is a more focal lesion here in
26:17
the metaphysis of the distal femur.
26:20
So that's a focus of osteomyelitis with transphyseal extension into the
26:24
epiphysis with a subperiosteal
26:28
abscess, which is pretty common in
26:31
kids. And this is a focal non-aggressive lesion consistent
26:35
with osteomyelitis.
26:38
So when we talk about malignant tumors,
26:41
the rules are the opposite on T1. So if you
26:45
can take a pen and define the
26:48
margin on T1 with a pencil,
26:52
that's abnormal. Because that means that it's a bone marrow infiltration
26:56
process, it's moving the fat
26:59
from the bone marrow, and usually we see that in osteosarcoma,
27:03
Ewing sarcoma, or lymphoma. So as I said, the T1 is your margin.
27:07
And when you are doing preoperative assessment or initial assessment of these
27:11
lesions, I always recommend my trainees to measure it on
27:15
T1 because some of the lesions could have edema on T2,
27:19
and it's really hard to know exactly what is the true margin of the lesion or
27:23
if it's just reactive edema, and I think the T1 is the most
27:27
useful. In this case, there is no doubt that it's an osteosarcoma
27:31
case. We can see the abnormality on the radiographs
27:35
with some burst periosteal bone formation, the
27:38
model appearance, the ill-defined margins.
27:41
But as I said, the T1 is going to give you the clue with defined margins.
27:45
So we have here two different cases in the distal femur.
27:48
So the first case, you are already familiar with, which is the osteomyelitis case,
27:52
ill-defined margins. But this is another case of osteosarcoma.
27:56
So if you can grab a pencil and you can draw the line, that's an
27:59
aggressive lesion, even if you don't have the radiographs, but hopefully you
28:03
have the radiographs in these cases.
28:05
But as I said, the T2 is really hard to define where
28:09
is the margin of this lesion. The T1 is going to help you to define
28:13
exactly where is the lesion. The T1 is super useful to
28:16
evaluate focal bone marrow anomalies.
28:20
So let's go through some cases. So this is
28:24
actually, I think it's ChatGPT, and I
28:27
asked for interesting pediatric MSK cases, like images just
28:31
to have it here. And actually, it's really interesting.
28:35
They don't make any sense, but they are indeed interesting if you
28:39
really start looking at them individually. So let's see.
28:42
So this is a 16-year-old with
28:46
pain in the distal tibia.
28:50
So just starting with the radiographs,
28:53
this is a concerning lesion. So you have a lytic
28:56
lesion in the distal tibia. The
29:00
margins are not well-defined.
29:03
There is a narrow zone of transition.
29:06
Even in this radiograph, it's a little bit hard to see, but there
29:10
could be an aggressive-looking periosteal bone
29:13
formation with a comet's tail here.
29:16
So it doesn't look great. So when we did the MRI, we
29:20
confirm that it's an aggressive lesion.
29:22
And I'm showing these two because sometimes, unfortunately, we don't have the
29:26
radiographs when we are looking at the MR, and the MR can be misleading.
29:29
So in this case, you can follow the margins with a
29:33
pencil on T1 that's aggressive. We can see on a
29:37
stir that there is not that much bone marrow edema.
29:39
There is an exophytosis of tissue component that enhances, and this
29:43
was a case of osteosarcoma, even though we didn't
29:47
see any osteoid forming matrix in
29:51
the radiograph. So sometimes it's really hard to differentiate between
29:54
osteosarcoma and Ewing sarcoma, but the T1 helps
29:58
you to say that this case needs a biopsy.
30:04
So this is another really interesting case.
30:08
It's an UNMME case. So if you haven't seen one of these,
30:12
I hope after you see this case,
30:16
next time you see it, if you have this case, you're going to be able to just give
30:20
the diagnosis because it's relatively rare, it's relatively uncommon,
30:23
but the imaging findings are pretty characteristic.
30:26
So we have a 15-year-old with atraumatic recurrently
30:30
pain and effusions for two months.
30:33
So the radiographs are pretty much normal.
30:36
And then when we do the MRI, we can see that there are
30:40
abnormalities in the bone marrow, that there are multifocal.
30:43
So here it is involving the distal femoral epiphysis, the
30:47
medial femoral condyle, and it involved with the proximal
30:50
tibia from the epiphysis to the metaphysis with transphyseal
30:54
extension. That's a little atypical.
30:57
But more importantly on the T1 is that you have sharp,
31:01
well-defined margins. You can draw with a pencil.
31:05
So if you really think about
31:08
multifocal focal lesions
31:11
that are normal on radiographs, your differential diagnosis gets
31:14
narrower. So this is, even though it's multifocal, it looks
31:18
aggressive.
31:20
On the STIR sequence, you can see
31:23
T2 abnormalities, and in post-contrast sequences, more
31:26
importantly, is that it has these
31:30
serpentine areas of
31:33
post-contrast that look like infarcts.
31:37
So as I said, if you haven't looked at this before,
31:40
I invite you to remember this because this is an UNME
31:44
for primary osseous lymphoma. And Dr.
31:48
Duffy and Dr. Eklund from Boston Children's, they published this in
31:52
2023, a series of these cases, and they realized they all look the same.
31:56
They are rare. Of course, primary osseous lymphoma is rare.
31:59
They usually start in the lymph nodes or the
32:03
spleen or the thymus, but this is rare. This is a primary of the bone.
32:08
And as I said, the key features to make this diagnosis is
32:12
multifocality, epiphyseal involvement, sharp
32:15
T1 margins, and an enhancement pattern that look like infarcts.
32:20
And most importantly, post-therapy,
32:23
they can have persistent or residual osseous abnormalities, even if
32:27
it's a good treatment response.
32:31
So this is another case. This is a 12-year-old with back
32:35
pain. And this was a case that
32:39
was, I think it was done overnight, and the fellow was in
32:43
charge of preliming this. And what caught the eye of the fellow was
32:47
this T1, T10 abnormality. It
32:51
looks really heterogeneous on T2.
32:54
It doesn't have contrast enhancement.
32:56
It doesn't enhance it
32:58
normally. It has some paraspinals of
33:02
tissue prominence. So he called, this could
33:06
be a metastatic lesion. This patient has a
33:09
really old history of neuroblastoma when he was a two-year-old.
33:13
So he's like, "Oh, could this be something focal in
33:17
T10?" But what it was missed, and this is why the
33:21
diffuse bone marrow abnormalities are so hard to
33:25
identify, is that it's not only T10.
33:28
It's the whole spine is abnormal. So as I said, go to your
33:32
T1, and in the spine, you're going to use the
33:36
intervertebral disc as your gold standard to evaluate
33:40
if it's higher or lower signal. And you can see that all the bone
33:43
marrow is lower signal than your
33:47
intervertebral disc, so this is completely abnormal.
33:51
The T2 is misleading just because it's so
33:55
diffusely abnormal that it's hard to see.
33:58
And then in this case, it has a more
34:00
ischemic
34:03
process of the bone marrow infiltration in T10, and that's where your eyes go.
34:07
But this is a diffuse bone marrow infiltration
34:11
in
34:12
unfortunate neuroblastoma recurrence 10 years later.
34:15
But lymphoma leukemia can look like this. Correct?
34:19
So any bone marrow infiltration process can look like this, and in this
34:23
case, it was neuroblastoma. So this
34:26
is a 10-year-old that present-- No, sorry, a five-year-old that
34:30
presented with
34:33
thigh pain. We did the radiographs.
34:36
We can see that there is non-aggressive but
34:40
abnormal periosteal new bone formation in the
34:45
femoral diaphysis. So we recommended an MRI.
34:49
And when we do the MRI, we can see that there is a more focal
34:53
intramedullary lesion
34:56
that is heterogeneous on T2,
34:59
low signal on T1. But importantly, there is
35:03
all these surrounding bone marrow abnormalities.
35:05
So as I said, where do you measure? Do you measure the whole femur?
35:09
And on T1, this bone marrow signal abnormality, it
35:12
is non-aggressive. It goes all the way to the distal
35:16
femoral metadiaphysis, but it's non-aggressive, and you see the pattern of
35:20
enhancement is non-aggressive. You cannot draw it with a pencil.
35:23
So this means that is an inflammatory mass.
35:28
There is a lot of inflammation surrounding this
35:31
lesion. And even though
35:35
LCH can look like anything, every time in a child that you
35:39
have an intramedullary lesion with extensive
35:43
inflammatory changes, I think your differential diagnosis
35:47
should be LCH number one, two, and three.
35:51
And of course, this patient will need a biopsy,
35:54
but this is pretty characteristic for LCH.
35:59
So we're going to go to our last case, which is really
36:03
abnormal. I actually have seen this
36:06
only in
36:10
conferences until last year with this case.
36:13
So this is a 15-year-old with a horrible history of
36:17
fulminant sepsis. You can see that he had cardiac
36:21
arrest outside of the hospital, a multi-organ
36:25
failure,
36:26
multiple infections, opportunistic infections,
36:30
including cutaneous mucormycosis.
36:32
So he was a pretty
36:34
sick kid. After he was
36:38
getting better and he was more responsive, he was complaining of hip pain.
36:42
So he went for an MRI of the hip,
36:45
and these were the initial images.
36:48
Because they were concerned about osteomyelitis, so we did a FAST protocol, which
36:51
is a T1 and a STIR sequence. And the
36:55
tech sent me these images, and I was looking at them, and the tech was like, "Oh,
36:59
did you want contrast?" What do we want? And the images look really abnormal.
37:03
I want you to think about which one is the STIR
37:07
sequence and which one is the T1 sequence.
37:11
And I'm going to show it now.
37:14
And the clue is actually in the urinary bladder,
37:18
because it's so abnormal, but you won't be able
37:22
to know just from the fat, the muscle, and the bone marrow.
37:25
So this was labeled STIR sequence,
37:29
but this doesn't look like a STIR sequence.
37:31
The STIR should have fat suppression, and you see the
37:35
subcutaneous high signal, which is abnormal.
37:38
The bone marrow is too hypointense, so it's really
37:42
abnormal. And this is what the
37:45
technologies label T1, which is,
37:49
again, abnormal. Where is the fat in the subcutaneous tissue?
37:52
Where is the fat within the bone marrow? This is a 15-year-old.
37:55
You should have more yellow fat, particularly in your
37:59
femoral head. So it looks really, really abnormal.
38:02
But if you see the bladder, which is fluid, it
38:06
maintains the same signal. So when you see
38:10
this,
38:11
and I want you to think that this is, "Oh, it looks like the images are flipped."
38:16
This looks like a T1, and this looks like a STIR sequence.
38:19
So the first thing that you have to make sure is that there is not a
38:23
problem with the labeling. So I called the tech right away, "No problem with
38:26
labeling.
38:27
Are you sure that you activated the fat suppression
38:32
in the STIR and you didn't activate fat suppression on T1?" "Correct."
38:36
"Are you sure that the gradients are working in the scanner?
38:38
Did we scan another patient today that didn't have any problem?" And she
38:42
said, "Yes. Everything, yes." And the way to prove that this is a true
38:46
flip-flop phenomenon is that you can either do an spectroscopy
38:50
and check how much fat you have in the subcutaneous fat and the bone marrow,
38:55
or
38:56
easier, which is the thing that I did, I requested a Dixon
39:00
sequence. A Dixon with water in-phase and
39:04
fat reconstruction. And you can see that this is a completely different
39:08
technique, and it shows the same finding.
39:10
So in the water, you can see that there is
39:13
water signal in the subcutaneous fat.
39:18
In the fat, there is no fat signal. There is no bright
39:22
signal on the fat, so this is like the findings were true.
39:25
And interestingly, this patient underwent an MRI the day before
39:29
of the elbow, and this was read as,
39:32
"Many technical issues we are unable to assess.
39:35
Patient will be rescheduled because of technical issues with the scanner." And
39:39
if you see, it's the same findings. That is, the STIR sequence looks like a T1.
39:44
The T1 doesn't look like a T1. There is so much bright
39:47
signal on the subcutaneous fat, and this was a true
39:51
case of a flip-flop phenomenon. So a flip-flop
39:55
phenomenon is also called serous atrophy
39:58
of the bone marrow or gelatinous
40:02
transformation of the bone marrow. That looks really scary.
40:04
But what it means is that there is a catabolic
40:08
state,
40:09
which this patient had multi-organ failure.
40:13
There is progressive depletion of the fat and protein stores, and
40:17
then all that fat within the subcutaneous tissue as well as the bone
40:21
marrow is going to transform into hyaluronic
40:24
acid. And that's the reason why you have
40:28
fluid-like signal in the bone marrow as
40:32
well as the fat. This is extremely rare, and you can
40:36
see it in cachectic states, anorexia
40:39
nervosa, or HIV/AIDS.
40:43
It's really rare, but I'm sharing them with you because I learned a lot from this
40:47
case. So if you have a question, always use a different technique of fat
40:50
suppression. Use a Dixon that can give you the fat and the water, and you are
40:54
sure that this is not a technical problem.
40:57
So in conclusion, it's really important
41:00
to identify what normal looks like in the normal bone
41:04
marrow in children so you don't think that this is
41:07
an abnormal bone marrow infiltration.
41:10
You need to learn the rules of what normal bone marrow looks like.
41:14
So remember, first, it converts distal to proximal,
41:18
and it converts epiphysis, diaphysis, metaphysis. Epiphysis, diaphysis, metaphysis.
41:23
The red marrow should be higher signal than muscle on T1, and I
41:27
believe that the T1 is the best sequence to characterize the red marrow
41:31
and to increase or decrease your concern in
41:35
these patients. So thank you so much, and I'm open for
41:39
questions.
41:41
Thank you so much for that lecture, Dr. Bedoya. That was excellent.
41:45
We are opening the floor for questions, so if you have any, please go ahead and
41:49
put those in that Q&A feature.
41:52
And there's one in there right now, Dr. Bedoya, if you're able to pop that open.
41:58
I am, but I'm sorry, I don't see a question.
42:02
Try hovering over the top of your Zoom.
42:04
You might see the Q&A with the
42:07
bubble with the question mark in it.
42:09
Let's see. I'm sorry.
42:11
It's okay.
42:13
Oh, question mark. Yes. So
42:16
in vertebrae, how can you see bone reconversion?
42:19
So in vertebrae, it's hard because in vertebrae,
42:23
you can have normal red marrow in women who
42:27
have their periods. They need more hematopoiesis, so it's normal to have
42:31
red marrow. So if you only have lumbar spine,
42:34
it's really hard to know. But the normal red marrow
42:38
should always be higher signal than the intervertebral disc.
42:42
So that should be your normal control to know if it's abnormal or normal.
42:47
Thank you so much. Do you have any experience with whole-body MRI
42:51
for marrow evaluation? So that's a really good point.
42:54
So it depends on what you're looking for.
42:56
So for example,
42:59
and this was a big discussion in
43:01
the Society of Pediatric Radiology meeting this month in Boston,
43:05
because it's what you're looking for.
43:07
So in patients of CNO,
43:10
where you only want to see focal areas of osteitis or
43:14
abnormal high T2 signal, sometimes that's the only
43:18
thing that the rheumatologists need.
43:21
So a T2-
43:24
May be enough. However,
43:27
I always recommend to do a T1 and a T2 STIR
43:31
of the whole body MR, because sometimes there are some lesions,
43:35
particularly in cases of,
43:40
for example, in ED from many cases, where
43:43
any abnormality is really abnormal, but these kids, they
43:47
can run, they can hurt their knees, they can have a lot of contusions and
43:51
edema. And I feel that T1 helps me to raise my
43:54
concern or not. So if I see that there is a focal lesion and then the T1
43:58
is too dark, I say, "We need additional imaging. We need biopsy.
44:02
We need to do more for those whole body MR."
44:05
If I see that is an area of common contusions, like femoral condos, and
44:09
the T1 is non-aggressive, I may say, "Oh, let's just do a
44:12
radiograph in three months to make sure that nothing is there." So I think the T1
44:16
helps you with that in the whole body MRI.
44:18
Right now, in Europe, what they're doing for whole body MRI is that
44:22
they are doing a T2 STIR, and then they're doing...
44:26
No, sorry, not T2 STIR. They're doing a T2 Dixon
44:30
Corona, and they are just reconstructing the water,
44:34
which looks like a STIR, right? It's like a T2 fat
44:38
suppress. And then they reconstruct the fat, like the T2
44:42
fat Dixon, and that's going to tell you if there is fat
44:46
within those lesions. So,
44:49
use all your tools that you have. I know sometimes in body
44:53
imaging for kids, we don't have a true T1 sequence.
44:56
But usually, we have
44:59
an in and out of phase, so you can use those to see if it's abnormal,
45:03
abnormal, and if there is any question, always add your T1.
45:08
Someone asked, "How does myelofibrosis look?" So myelofibrosis,
45:12
it can be really hard to see on MRI. I feel like it will be
45:16
dark on T1 and dark on T2.
45:20
But sometimes I have seen cases where it looks like a--
45:24
The clue for me is the T2, particularly in myelofibrosis.
45:29
But I haven't had a case where I'm confidently,
45:33
like I know it looks abnormal and I recommend a bone marrow
45:37
aspirate to make sure
45:40
what it is.
45:42
But that's why I didn't, I don't have a true case.
45:44
But it should be a lower signal on T2.
45:48
There is another question. "Is the rule of chart margin and
45:52
TY apply on adult malignant tumor?" I
45:56
don't see why not. I
46:00
don't see why not. I feel it's just that
46:03
in children,
46:06
sometimes we are into like, "Is it normal red marrow or is it a pathology?"
46:10
Right? That's how we are usually finding ourselves, and that's
46:14
why we use that T1. But I don't see why not.
46:17
I have noticed that most of the primary metastasis,
46:21
some of the metastasis,
46:23
they all have chart T1 margins. But you have to be
46:27
careful with
46:29
post-treatment changes because in the post-treatment changes, they get more
46:33
fatty infiltration, even if that is still present on the T2, and the
46:37
T1 can be a little misleading. But I use the T1 a lot to
46:41
evaluate metastatic disease also. So I don't see why not.
46:45
"How do you differentiate osteoporotic spine
46:49
fractures from a malignant one?" So that's a really good question, and I think
46:53
this goes with adult
46:56
T1 signal. I train under Dr. Ben
47:00
Cardino, and I remember many times that she was saying to me
47:04
that a pathologic fracture, if there is
47:07
multiple myeloma or there is lymphoma or something there,
47:11
you should still see a little bit of T1 bright
47:15
signal when compared to the intervertebral disc.
47:18
Edema, the same, it should be ill-defined, and the T1 will
47:22
help you. But you should see a little bit of normal
47:27
red marrow, right? Which is what we discussed today.
47:30
If you see complete
47:32
effacement of the normal T1 signal, that means that it's way
47:36
darker than the intervertebral disc, you have to raise the concern for a
47:39
pathologic fracture. I think the T1 helps.
47:43
Also, use all your tools if you
47:46
have. Sometimes diffusion helps that too.
47:51
But it can be hard sometimes. But I do use the T1 as the rule.
47:55
I remember Dr. Ben Cardino saying that if it gets rid of the fat,
47:59
that is
48:00
malignant until proven otherwise.
48:02
And I guess that the MRI is really helpful to differentiate fat
48:06
from just fluid.
48:09
"How all patients..." Okay.
48:13
Sorry, another question. "In many old patients, diffuse dark T1
48:17
signal. If it still looks okay, how did you interpret?" So,
48:23
in all patients, diffuse T1 dark signal is abnormal, right?
48:26
Because there is no reason why.
48:29
It's not red marrow, right? So why did you have diffuse?
48:33
And that's where some cases of
48:38
diffuse bone marrow infiltration can get lost, right?
48:42
So if I only see really dark T1 signal, I am concerned about
48:45
bone marrow infiltration and I would recommend a bone marrow infiltrate if there is
48:49
no other reason to explain it, right?
48:51
If there is no severe anemia, if there is no
48:54
granulocyte stimulated factor. I feel the T1 is
48:58
so useful because every time if I see a
49:02
lesion or something on the T2, I open my T1 because if
49:05
it's bright on T1, you're like, "Okay, this is non-aggressive, right?
49:10
This is either a venous malformation or what we call an intrasystem
49:13
angioma, or this is for fat deposition." So the T1 is your
49:18
clue. And if it's dark on T1, I will
49:22
raise my concern and I will follow it.
49:26
Okay, another question. Can TB cause
49:30
diffuse vertebral body loss on T1 and T2?
49:35
So I guess that it depends on the bone marrow
49:38
infiltration. The answer is yes,
49:41
but it will look more ill-defined.
49:45
It will have some edema around, and I guess you
49:49
always think in TB about the multilevel involvement, the disc
49:53
preservation. You have to use other rules to be
49:56
sure.
49:58
But it does. The other question is, "Is T1 Dixon
50:02
helpful?"
50:04
I think it's helpful.
50:07
It depends on what you're looking for, but I think it's helpful if you have
50:10
in older kids, if you have in, out-of-phase that
50:14
you can see if there is drop of signal in out-of-phase.
50:17
Because you're always just trying to look if there is
50:21
microscopic fat. If you have microscopic fat, it's a good
50:25
sign.
50:27
So yes, I find it helpful.
50:29
But I like my routine T1
50:33
in all my pediatric protocol cases.
50:36
I
50:38
have to play more with the T1 Dixon.
50:40
We use T1 Dixon for the abdominal imaging in kids,
50:44
just because you can use those two sequences
50:47
without any additional sequences. It's helpful.
50:52
But if you have any question, just add your SAG or your coronal T1.
50:59
Okay, I think that those were all the questions.
51:02
I think you got them all. Yeah. Thank you so much.
51:06
Of course.
51:07
Yeah. Thank you so much for this presentation. That was fantastic.
51:09
Really appreciate you being here.
51:11
Of course. Happy to be here. Thank you for the invitation.
51:15
And thank you for everyone else for participating in this noon conference.
51:19
You can access a recording of today's conference and all our previous noon
51:22
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51:23
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51:27
Be sure to join us next week on Thursday, July 2nd at 12:00 PM Eastern, where Dr.
51:31
Rahseeh Malak will deliver a lecture entitled Vessel Wall Imaging.
51:35
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51:37
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