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High Grade Waist Fracture of the Scaphoid

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Dr. P and Dr. Stern here with a 53-year-old

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lady who fell while skiing.

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Um, I've learned to avoid that

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sport, now that I'm over 60.

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And we've got a coronal PD fat suppression on

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the left, a gradient echo cartilage sequence in

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the middle, a detector sequence on the left, and

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then sort of the refining T1 anatomic sequence.

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And this study was done the right

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way, as we'll see in a minute.

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Now, the coronals are straight orthogonal coronals.

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And one thing I would mention to the audience,

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both imagers and orthopedic surgeons and hand surgeons

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out there, is when you see a line in the bone,

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you should assess the thickness of that line.

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And this one's pretty thick.

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You know, typically a microtrabecular

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injury, a millimeter or less,

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looks like a little spidery line.

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Whereas this one has more or less of a gap in it.

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Now, there may not be an anatomic gap

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between the two edges of the medullary bone.

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But the actual signal is pretty confluent.

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And sometimes it'll even have what

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I would consider a lentiform shape.

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This is very common in small bones.

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Here's the lentiform shape right there.

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And now I'll take it away.

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So that means you're dealing with

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a more substantive injury.

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So one of your jobs is to determine if you

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have an honest-to-goodness real fracture

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even though you may not see it on X-ray.

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In other words, is it transcortical?

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Does it go all the way through?

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Is there displacement?

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Is there angulation?

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Is there deformity?

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And at the break, Dr.

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Stern mentioned to me that you also

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have to assess the adjacent SL ligament,

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which in this case looks pretty good.

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Now, we're going to

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show you the other views.

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And let's look at how they are obtained.

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I'm going to produce a sagittal GRE view.

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And this one was reconstructed

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as opposed to directly acquired.

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But look at how it is reconstructed.

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It's reconstructed along the long axis of the scaphoid.

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And now it looks like a pretty nasty

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injury, but the cortex doesn't look too bad.

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Maybe there's a little step-off here, maybe not.

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Now it is absolutely clear.

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There is a gap, there's diastasis.

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This fracture goes all the way through from the

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dorsal portion of the scaphoid to the front.

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And then finally we bring down a short-axis view.

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Here's another sagittal, by the way.

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Same angulation, this is a

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sagittal water-weighted sequence.

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You can see the break in the cortex

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back here and the edema on either side.

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So there is a little gap there and it does

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go all the way through to the palmar surface.

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And finally, the last oblique down the long

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axis of this sagittal oblique gives you this

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curvilinear tangent view of the scaphoid.

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And there is your fracture with a

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big gap seen in the middle on T1.

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So, how do we manage this one, and what's

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important, what's relevant in this true fracture?

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Yeah, so Steve, these are beautiful images,

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and if you look at the coronal views,

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one would think that—at least I would

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say that this is a very high-grade, complete

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fracture, absolutely without displacement.

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But when you look at the sagittal view on the

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left, as you point out, and as I off-camera

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missed, there's definitely dorsal gapping.

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And eventually, this will lead on

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plane radiographs to what we call a humpback

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or kyphotic deformity of the scaphoid.

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Basically, what happens is the proximal pole and distal

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pole of the scaphoid fold in towards each other.

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So, let me have the pen here.

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Sure.

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So, you see a dorsal gap right

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here, and these two poles will fold in as

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Steve's drawn, and I'll make it more clear.

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Dramatic with the arrows.

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They fold into each other.

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So I think with this information, a clinician,

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at least I would be very inclined to treat this

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surgically with a headless compression screw.

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What's the prognosis for somebody like this?

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She's 53 years old.

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It's a waist fracture.

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What's the, you know, would you follow

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it up to see if she gets AVN, or would

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you only do it if she doesn't improve?

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Well, I would, if I was having a

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conversation with the patient, I would be

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inclined to recommend surgical intervention.

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If she elected not to have

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anything done surgically, we

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would immobilize her in a thumb spica.

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And, uh, see her serially and obtain plain radiographs.

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The problem is that, in general,

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you can't get an MRI from an insurance

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standpoint, cost standpoint, every four weeks.

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I mean, I guess you could if

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but not in this country.

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So, I would lean towards operative fixation.

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If she's skiing at age 54 or 55, I think

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that's her best shot to get this to heal up

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and return to her activities, which she enjoys.

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One question I have as a layperson.

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If I choose not to have a screw placed

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in there, does that increase my risk for AVN?

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Not sure I can answer that question.

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My guess would be probably not, but

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AVN.

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Anderson, as you say, as you said, there

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are many, many factors in terms of

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prognosticating whether or not a scaphoid will heal.

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And if I, over my career, and I think the

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literature would support this, the single

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most important thing, and this is non-unions,

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that the time from injury to seeing the

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patient is the most critical determinant.

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Of whether or not a bone's going to unite.

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Certainly displacement, whether they smoke

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or not, location of the fracture, as

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you mentioned, more proximal fractures in

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general, almost always need treatment.

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Associated injuries, a trans-scaphoid

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perilunate or trans-capitate injury,

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those also would require fixation.

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Are younger patients less likely to get AVN?

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Because I see a lot of them with AVN.

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I don't think so.

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I don't think they have any

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privilege in that regard.

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Okay.

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Dr. P and Dr. Stern out.

Report

Faculty

Stephen J Pomeranz, MD

Chief Medical Officer, ProScan Imaging. Founder, MRI Online

ProScan Imaging

Tags

Trauma

Musculoskeletal (MSK)

MRI

Idiopathic

Hand & Wrist